1

I've noticed that some rabbanim are referred to by the titles of multiple books. For example, R' Jair Bacharach (Wermeiser Rov between 1699-1702) is referred to both by the name of his shu"t, Chavot Ya'ir, and by the title of his commentary on Shulchan 'Aruch, Mekor Chaim.

What is the rationale for using different works to refer to one rav with?

  • there's no official rule or rationale for these things, they just happen. It's like someone having multiple nicknames - it just happens because people start referring to him with those names. Many rabbanim aren't referred to by the titles of any of their books. – Jay Nov 25 '16 at 0:28
  • @Jay, true, but most of those who are only get referenced with one of their sefarim, such as the Chofetz Chaim (R' Yisrael Me'ir haKohen of Radun) – Noach MiFrankfurt Nov 25 '16 at 0:29
  • I've personally never heard him referred to as the "Mekor Chayim". I think most people don't even know he wrote a commentary on ShA. A better example might be R Joshua Falk who wrote Beit Yisrael and Meirat Einayim, and most everyone has heard of both those works but don't realize they have the same author (or that those are their proper names). – Double AA Nov 25 '16 at 0:38
  • 2
    Possible duplicate - depending on what the answer turns out to be: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/27832/3 – WAF Nov 25 '16 at 0:43

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .