10

Bereishit 4:25 says

וידע אדם עוד את אשתו ותלך בן ותקרא את שמו שת

And Adam knew his wife again, and she bore a son, and [she] called his name Seth.

Bereishit 5:3 says:

ויחי אדם שלשים ומאת שנה ויולד בדמותו כצלמו ויקרא את שמו שת

And Adam lived a hundred and thirty years, and he begot a son in his own likeness, after his own image; and [he] called his name Seth.

(Translations JPS 1917 through Sefaria, emphasis mine). Did they both name him? Or is this an apparent contradiction that is resolved in another way?

Improve this question
2
  • This seems like a classical case for the Samaritan text to change it, but I probably wouldn't trust their text too much in isolation...
    – mevaqesh
    Nov 21, 2016 at 1:42
  • 2
    I think that Hizkuni is addressing this when he writes (4:25): ותקרא את שמו שת אבל למטה הואיל ובא לו הכתוב לסדר סדר תולדות הדורות נכון לכתוב קריאת השם על אדם . If I understand correctly, he means that in reality it was Eve who named him, but in the summary of the account, Adam is mentioned (presumably because as a male he is considered primary, or something). || The Akedat Yitshak writes that they agreed on the name: עקידת יצחק בראשית שער יא (פרשת בראשית) ויקרא את שמו שת. הרי ששניהם הסכימו בזה.
    – mevaqesh
    Nov 21, 2016 at 1:50

2 Answers 2

Reset to default
5

Chizkuni (4:25) seems to be saying that only she named him, and later in 5:25 since it is listing the genealogy (of only the men) it is more appropriate to attribute it to Adam.

Improve this answer
3
  • [char] Good find :)
    – mevaqesh
    Nov 21, 2016 at 2:45
  • 1
    @mevaqesh you too :) I'm not sure who was first, but if it was you, let me assure you I already found the Chizkuni independently. btw you should probably post the A.Y. as an answer so that people will more likely read it.
    – Jay
    Nov 21, 2016 at 3:46
  • I was first (check date stamps). I was kidding. By not posting an answer I essentially was letting someone else posting, and at most hoping for a hat tip. I am busy and should be doing other things. Hopefully later I will post...
    – mevaqesh
    Nov 21, 2016 at 4:11
5

Yes, they both named him since normally the father and mother jointly determine the name of the children. See Peirush of Rav D.Z Hoffman to bereishis 5:3 (rough translation):

ויקרא – מוסב על אדם, ואילו לעיל ד, כה חוה היא הקובעת את השם. ואין לראות בכך כל סתירה, שהרי כרגיל האב והאם קובעים את השם ביחד. ויכול איפוא להאמר פעם ויאמר ופעם ותאמר; השווה למשל להלן לח, ג־ה.

and [he] called - Is refering to Adam, and above 4:25 Eve is giving the name. And this should not be seen as a contradiction, because normally the father and mother together determine the name. And therefore can be stated "he said" and after "she said". Compare, for example, later, bereishis 38:3-4.

(It is possible that Chava gave the reason for the name, and Adam performed the naming ceremony).

Improve this answer
3
  • and Adam performed the naming ceremony Why would you assume that there was a ceremony? How many folks participated in this ceremony?
    – mevaqesh
    Nov 21, 2016 at 3:00
  • 1
    @mevaqesh I have no source on this. It's just an idea.
    – Renato S. Grun
    Nov 21, 2016 at 15:58
  • ‏I assume the relevant part of that source is מוסב על אדם ואילו לעיל ד, כה חוה היא הקובעת את השם. ואין לראות בכף כל סתירה, שהרי כרגיל האב והאם קובעים את השם ויחד. ויכל איפוא להאמר פעם ויאמר ופעם ותאמר; השווה למשל להלן לח. Can you provide a translation? I'm not able to understand it myself.
    – C_D
    Nov 22, 2016 at 4:02

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .