I heard that there is one that says that the 70 languages were divided among the nations BEFORE the mabul - Yerushalmi Megilla 1:9 - How does that fit with the text of the pessukim?

  • Welcome to Mi Yodeya. Can you expand this question by providing an excerpt of the "pshat" and the Yerushalmi? Most readers probably won't understand what you are discussing in this question without this.
    – DanF
    Nov 7, 2016 at 17:28
  • 1
    If you can find us the Yerushalmi inside that would significant help people who are trying to answer. Please edit your question as well to explicate how exactly the verses don't match with this opinion. The clearer you can be, the better we are able to help you.
    – Double AA
    Nov 7, 2016 at 17:28
  • Logically, whatever languages were spoken before the mabul would have been wiped out except for whatever language the family of Noach spoke. That would have made "everyone" speak the same language after the mabul. Nov 7, 2016 at 21:10

1 Answer 1


Miy'mini Michoel (Rabbi Michoel Reach) explains that although there were 70 languages prior to the Dor Haflaga they were all able to speak Lashon Hakodesh also at that point. At the Dor Haflaga Hashem removed the ability for them to speak Lashon Kodesh and thus they were unable to talk to each other.

וכבר היו לכל עם ועם לשון שלו, אבל עדיין היו יכולים לדבר זה עם זה ע“י שפה אחת דהיינו לשה“ק.

נמצא שלא הוצרך הקב“ה בסוף לשנות לשונותיהם כלל, רק להסיר מהם יכולת לדבר יחד בשפה אחת


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