Sacrifice and meal-offering Thou hast no delight in; Mine ears hast Thou opened; Burnt-offering and sin-offering hast Thou not required. (JPS)
How has Psalm 40:7 been interpreted given that the Torah clearly does require burnt offering (Numbers 28:3) and sin offering (Leviticus 4:22-24)? Was the sentiment that HaShem has not required these specific to David's particular time and circumstance? How can we understand this attribute of what HaShem requires (or does not require) given the understanding that at some point sacrifices will resume in a restored temple?
I found this post on the same verse, but it does not address the question of sacrifice. I might be oversimplifying, but I read the phrase "Mine ears hast Thou opened" straightforwardly as "you have allowed me to hear your voice on this subject."