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Does the word distribution in the Torah (ie the Pentateuch) follow Zipfs law where the frequency of a word's occurrence is inversely proportional to its statistical rank (ie does the 2nd most commonly used word occur 1/2 as often as the 1st, the 3rd most commonly used word occur 1/3 as often etc.)

closed as off-topic by kouty, sabbahillel, Gershon Gold, Isaac Moses, Scimonster Oct 11 '16 at 6:33

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  • Zipfs is only for the English language. In Hebrew, words are used much less frequently, as the nouns and verbs are compounded. – lionscribe Oct 7 '16 at 4:40
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    @lionscribe en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zipf%27s_law#Statistical_explanation Zipf's Law is not just for English, but for most languages. – Double AA Oct 7 '16 at 5:35
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is not linked to juaism – kouty Oct 7 '16 at 11:40
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    Could you edit in some indication of why, from the point of view of Judaism, you are (or anyone else could be) interested in knowing the answer to this? – Isaac Moses Oct 7 '16 at 13:43
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it's not yet clear why, from the point if view of Judaism, someone would want to know this. – Isaac Moses Oct 9 '16 at 1:12

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