A friend of mine mentioned yesterday during our se'udah with the way in which the Zohar comments on a particular mitzvah lo ta'ase. In Devarim 16, Hashem commands us not to erect an asherah by the mizbe'ach. The Zohar apparently tries to whitewash this by explaining it as a separation between Hashem and the Shechinah. However, in the times of Bayit Rishon, Asherah was viewed by idolaters as a consort for Hashem.
When I subsequently queried him on the makor, he said that he believes that the citation is 1:49a.
Considering that the Zohar effectively rehashes this ancient avodah zarah, how can this belief (and by extension, the Zohar) be muttar?