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If a gentile is studying Torah but not to imitate the Jews and "hijack" the Torah and respect the boundaries between The Jews and Gentiles, yet he/she wants to study Torah (both written and oral) because that will draw them closer to God and make them know Him better and rise their kavannah, but they won't practice what is exclusive to Jews only. Is that okay ?

Another question also rise, is he/she allowed to speak about what they have learned to gentiles ?

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  • Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/23042, judaism.stackexchange.com/q/20403, and judaism.stackexchange.com/q/1583. – Fred Oct 2 '16 at 7:09
  • @Fred they are related but they are not as specific as this. I intentionally said that the reason is not "to imitate the Jews" – mil Oct 2 '16 at 7:14
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    The dn of Devarim (Ki Tavo) has an instruction that the people write the Torah on large stones ba'er hetev which Rash"i (I think he cites Tal Sanhedrin?) explains means in 70 languages. It seems there is an idea that Gentiles should understand or "study" Torah. – DanF Oct 5 '16 at 1:48

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