In Biblical times, the tribe of Levi owned no land. There were other provisions for their upkeep.

What if a Levite man married a non-levite woman who owned property. Or what if a Levite man made a loan to a non-Levi and was repaid in land. Did that land say in the tribe of Levi?

  • 1
    There is a difference between inherited land and acquired land – kouty Sep 20 '16 at 12:34
  • @kouty True, but it's a valid point that if a woman inherited her father and then later married a levite then that would be a levi with heritable land. Technically it is owned by his wife, but would remain in the levitic family as inheritance if she isn't divorced from him before her death. – Isaac Kotlicky Sep 20 '16 at 13:00
  • @IsaacKotlicky you mean that this is the core of the question? I will search – kouty Sep 20 '16 at 13:13

The status of land transferred between tribes through inheritance is dealt with in the Mishna Arakhin 33b. This is how the Rambam rules (Yovel 13:8-9 (English)):

ישראל שירש את אבי אימו לוי--הרי זה גואל כלויים, אף על פי שאינו לוי, הואיל והערים או השדות הן של לויים, גואל לעולם: שדין זה תלוי במקומות אלו, לא בבעלים. ולוי שירש את אבי אימו ישראל--אינו גואל כלויים, אלא כישראל: שלא נאמר "גאולת עולם, תהיה ללויים" (ויקרא כה,לב), אלא בערי הלויים.‏
When an Israelite inherits property from his maternal grandfather who was a Levi, although he is not a Levite, he may redeem [the property] as if he was a Levite. Since these cities or fields belong to the Levities, they may be redeemed forever. For this law is dependent on [the characteristics of] these places, not of the owners. When a Levite inherits the property of his maternal grandfather who is an Israelite, he does not have the redemption rights of a Levite, only those of an Israelite, for the verse "The Levites will have eternal rights of redemption" applies only in the cities of the Levites.

| improve this answer | |

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .