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If a Ba'al T'shuva had chamets that was either very important to him, or had a big monitary value and had it in his possesion over pesach before he came back, is there a possible Heter for him so that he won't have to get rid of it? This is just a quizzing question. I already know the answer.

closed as not a real question by Isaac Moses Jun 16 '11 at 22:06

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  • If you already know an answer to this question, I hope you'll write it up, hopefully citing sources. – Isaac Moses Apr 11 '10 at 20:27
  • I think chametz is the correct spelling. – cookie monster Dec 21 '10 at 16:41
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I haven't looked it up, but I heard a shiur about something like this. Theoretically, if the fellow had a non-Jewish wife who shared joint ownership of his property, then as long as the chametz's value is <50% of everything they own, we can retroactively view the chometz as being hers and the non-chametz his.

  • But that is a very specific case. Most of the time the question is for someone not married to a non-Jew. – Bas613 Apr 12 '10 at 18:32
  • Yes; my understanding is this is a riddle along the lines of "is there any case such that ..." – Shalom Apr 12 '10 at 19:33
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Shlomo, your father already answered that it is permissible for him to keep and use!

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