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So the RaMBaM put on his tefillin shel rosh on his head before his tefillin shel yad, and Josephus also says that he puts on his tefillin shel rosh first. Why did they do that? Is that even allowed today? Or is it because they are in a higher level than regular people, or did people in the olden days do that?

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    "the RaMBaM put on his tefillin shel rosh on his head before his tefillin shel yad" How do you know that?
    – Double AA
    Commented Aug 2, 2016 at 5:18
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    The Rambam says to first put on the shel yad, then to put on the shel rosh (Hil. T'fillin 4:5, "וקושר של יד ואחר כך מניח של ראש"). The Rambam is pretty emphatic about it (ibid. 4:8, "שאין לובשין של ראש קודם של יד").
    – Fred
    Commented Aug 2, 2016 at 5:54
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    Also, Josephus never said to put on the shel rosh first. He just mentioned it before he mentioned the shel yad (Antiquities iv. 8:13, "ἐπὶ τῆς κεφαλῆς καὶ τοῦ βραχίονος").
    – Fred
    Commented Aug 2, 2016 at 6:18
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    @Fred This is a valid answer Commented Aug 2, 2016 at 7:56

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The premises of your question appear to be incorrect.

The Rambam (Hil. T'fillin 4:5) says to first put on the shel yad (phylacteries of the arm) and to then put on the shel rosh (phylacteries of the head):

וקושר של יד ואחר כך מניח של ראש

Translation:

And he should bind the arm phylacteries [to his arm] and afterwards don the head phylacteries.

The Rambam emphasizes that a person should not reverse the order (ibid. 4:8):

שאין לובשין של ראש קודם של יד

Translation:

For one should not don the head phylacteries before the arm phylacteries.

Additionally, Josephus never said to put on the shel rosh first. He simply mentioned it before he mentioned the shel yad when talking about the significance of the commandment of t'fillin in general (Antiquities iv. 8:13, "ἐπὶ τῆς κεφαλῆς καὶ τοῦ βραχίονος"). Josephus was apparently not addressing the question of the proper order of placement. English translation:

Let every one commemorate before God the benefits which he bestowed upon them at their deliverance out of the land of Egypt, and this twice every day, both when the day begins and when the hour of sleep comes on, gratitude being in its own nature a just thing, and serving not only by way of return for past, but also by way of invitation of future favors. They are also to inscribe the principal blessings they have received from God upon their doors, and show the same remembrance of them upon their arms; as also they are to bear on their forehead and their arm those wonders which declare the power of God, and his good-will towards them, that God's readiness to bless them may appear everywhere conspicuous about them.

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  • @NoachMiFrankfurt (Not sure if you're actually pingable). "Every where" as two words is just an archaic spacing convention that Gutenberg.org retained when transcribing this 1737 translation from William Whiston. It also used to be common to write other compound words like "every thing", "every one", and "any thing" as two words.
    – Fred
    Commented Aug 2, 2016 at 19:05
  • I was unaware. Regardless, the convention when maintaining an incorrect usage in a quote is to have [sic.]. Modernising spellings is also accepted protocol when quoting older works. Commented Aug 2, 2016 at 19:09
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    @Fred meta.stackexchange.com/a/43020/166155
    – Double AA
    Commented Aug 2, 2016 at 20:26

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