According to some online sources, if you take every 50th letter of the first two books of the Torah, you'll end up with a repetition of the word "Torah". And the same applies but backwards for the 4th and 5th books.

And the same counting in the 3rd book will give G-d's Name.

Is this true?

  • 5
    Did you try counting?
    – Double AA
    Jul 24 '16 at 2:50
  • 1
    It would help a lot if you could cite the online source you think you saw this. Did you try a web search to locate the source? If nothnig appears, then, apparently, there is NO online source, right?
    – DanF
    Jul 24 '16 at 3:04
  • 1
    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because because the answer can be found without knowledge. It is as is it true that all 50 days the sun is not shine
    – kouty
    Jul 24 '16 at 3:46
  • @DanF Apparently they found it here: bereanpublishers.com/a-hidden-torah-secret
    – Mithical
    Jul 24 '16 at 7:25
  • @kouty where did you get you guidelines for what is on topic?
    – mevaqesh
    Jul 24 '16 at 23:30

The effect was among many found by Rabbi Dov Weismandel in Prague in the 1950s. It was his discoveries that motivated all the Torah Code stuff, but he made no claims about finding meaning from these patterns; at least not beyond finding them an indication of Divine Authorship.

Anyway, start with the "ת" at the end of the word "בראשית", so the first letter of the pattern is the 6th letter of the Torah. Now, skip ahead 49 letters to get to the "ו" of "תהום", then another 49 -- the "ר" of "וירא", and finally the "ה" of "א-להים". Similarly in Shemos, start with the first "ת", ie one in the title word, count ahead 49, etc... (That's intervals of 49, ie the 50th letter.) Bamidbar spells "הרות" (Torah backwords) and Vayiqra only shows the effect on the 49th letter (invervals of 48) and only when starting from a later "ה", in verse 5. As for Vayiqra, R' Weismandel found Hashem's name starting from the first "י" and counting 8s. And so on...

So, if we change "every 50th letter of the first two books of the Torah, you'll end up with a repetition of the word 'Torah'" to doing it once from the first "ת" in each book, the emended claim would be true.

  • It did Not take place in Prague.
    – Dr. Shmuel
    Feb 26 '18 at 20:03
  • Indeed he moved to the NY area after the war and established a yeshiva there. If the date is correct then the place cannot be
    – mbloch
    Sep 16 '18 at 3:45

This is factually untrue. You only need to get 50 letters into the first book of the Torah to discover the letter Lamed, ל, in Bereishit 1:2. Likewise in the book of Shemot, the 50th letter is a Shin, ש, in Shemot 1:2.

The 50th, 100th and 150th letters of the book of Vayikra are א, then ר and מ respectively.

Note that this answers the actual question, and does not address the patterns mentioned in the comments.

Whoever thought that one up really didn't think it through at all.


The question as asked is not factually true. However, if you start from the first Taf, ת, and count fifty letters, then it does work out.



  • does it spell torah once? or several times? Aug 4 '17 at 1:17
  • 1
    Pretty sure it's just once.
    – Nic
    Aug 4 '17 at 13:16

As the 50th letter of B'reishit is a Lamed, ל, (which makes a 'L' sound) not a Taf, ת, {which makes a 'T' sound), I think that that can prove that this is not true.

  • Why did you delete this answer? It's a perfectly good answer (if correct. I didn't check).
    – msh210
    Jul 24 '16 at 16:33
  • @msh210 He deleted the answer because he found that the claim in the question is partially true (see this answer).
    – Fred
    Jul 26 '16 at 19:46

I think those claims have originated from the Bible/Torah codes.

They're debunked by mathematicians and computer scientists. You might want to see this for further details.

And also here's an interview with a computer scientist, Brendan McKay, who has analyzed them. He basically explains there's nothing miraculous about the found patterns and that they can easily be found in any random book.

  • 2
    The OP was not asking if there's anything miraculous with Bible codes in general, he was asking if a particular sequence of letters spells a particular word. This does not answer that question. It should be a comment (at most.)
    – mevaqesh
    Jul 24 '16 at 23:29

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