The Torah describes in our parshah how, if a person is poor and has to sell his ancestral real estate, "his goel, who is closely related to him, should come and redeem his brother's sale" (Lev. 25:25).

When that happens, who actually takes possession? Does the goel hold on to it until the next Yovel year, or does it immediately revert to the original seller?


Rashi (w/o surce) in B'har 25:13 says that the redeemer returns it to the original owner at Yovel.

  • Looks like Rashi got this from Sifra to this verse. – Alex May 15 '11 at 5:24

Abarbanel, though not a halachic source, mentions that if the seller does not have the means to redeem his property, a wealthier relative of his (his goel), should buy it back from the buyer "to return it to the seller," implying that ownership immediately reverts to the original seller.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .