Says that David is technically not sinning because Batsheba is "technically" divorced.
It seems that in ancient Israel, where Torah is actual law rather than just religious opinions, sinning and committing a crime are the exact same thing. One guy is sinning if and only if he breaks the law of the land at that time, which at that time, is the exact religious laws.
That misses a big elephant question. If sex outside marriage is always sin, and Batsheba is definitely not David's wife, then how come there is even any question if David is technically sinning or not?
If David may technically not sin because at that time Batsheba is not married, then why are there any rabbi that think sex outside marriage is not sin.
Even their king have sex outside marriage, have concubines, and well, to push the boundary, sleep with someone's else wife.
And that's not sin.
And now sex outside marriage is?