When a word starts with one of בגדכפת and the previous word ends in a vowel, usually the בגדכפת letter does not get a dageish unless it falls into one of the exception categories.

What happens if you mispronounce a word that falls under this category and ends in a consonant, and then you notice your mistake right away?


  • Repeat the word as normal, without the dageish. This sounds a bit strange, since the reason it loses the dageish is because it's connected to the previous word. In this case it's not, but maybe we should pronounce the word as the mesorah dictates anyway.
  • Repeat the word, but with a dageish in the first letter.
  • Go back to the word before it so you can pronounce it properly without the dageish and still have it sound right.
    • But what if the word before is Hashem's name? Should you say Hashem's name again for the sole purpose of making the dikduk come out right? (Example: Isaiah 54:5)

The same question applies to a word that starts with a dageish chazak because of דחיק or אתי מרחיק.

  • 2
    Are you asking about leining? Davening? Something else? – Daniel Jun 5 '16 at 23:20
  • 1
    @Daniel Any of the above. Why, do you see a reason why it would make a difference? – Heshy Jun 5 '16 at 23:35
  • 2
    @Heshy did the mistake change the meaning of the word? – user6591 Jun 6 '16 at 1:08
  • @Heshy I'm just trying to understand what you're asking. – Daniel Jun 6 '16 at 1:32
  • 1
    @user6591 TTBOMK these Degeishim can never change the meaning of words. (FTR some Rishonim think even non-meaning-changing mistakes are correctable.) – Double AA Jun 6 '16 at 3:01

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