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Is there any explicit halachah against going to different rabbanim to find the most lenient one for a specific shaylah?

I know it says in pirkei avos "asei l'cho rav", but what if you don't have a personal Rov? Or if you do have a rov, is it prohibited to go find a more lenient p'sak or just not recommended? And is there a difference for a shas had'chak?

Edit: Furthermore, if you did find a more lenient p'sak than the p'sak of your Rabbi/the first Rabbi you asked, would you be permitted to go according to it? And if the second Rabbi was even stricter than the first, can you go like the first (assuming neither of them are your personal Rabbi).

  • judaism.stackexchange.com/a/29148/759 Even if you found a lenient one you'd be bound to the other ones. – Double AA May 24 '16 at 14:31
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    @DoubleAA, the question post doesn't say our John Doe ever asked a stricter rabbi. It's possible he merely suspects a certain rabbi would be stricter so asks a different one. – msh210 May 24 '16 at 15:41
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    @msh210 It asks of one who "[went] to different rabbanim". Seemingly that means asking them. – Double AA May 24 '16 at 16:14
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    I personally heard R' Reuven Feinstein use very harsh words against rabbi shopping (he used that term). – Adám May 24 '16 at 16:41
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    @DoubleAA, I thought it was about people in general (hence the plural) going to rabanim who respectively are different from the respective ones they'd usually go to: but each person goes to only one rabbi. As always, more clarity in the question is better. – msh210 May 24 '16 at 17:14
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See this Mishna Chala 5, 7:

יִשְׂרָאֵל שֶׁהָיוּ אֲרִיסִין לְנָכְרִים בְּסוּרְיָא, רַבִּי אֱלִיעֶזֶר מְחַיֵּב פֵּרוֹתֵיהֶם בַּמַּעַשְׂרוֹת וּבַשְּׁבִיעִית, וְרַבָּן גַּמְלִיאֵל פּוֹטֵר. רַבָּן גַּמְלִיאֵל אוֹמֵר, שְׁתֵּי חַלּוֹת בְּסוּרְיָא. וְרַבִּי אֱלִיעֶזֶר אוֹמֵר, חַלָּה אֶחָת. אָחֲזוּ קֻלּוֹ שֶׁל רַבָּן גַּמְלִיאֵל וְקֻלּוֹ שֶׁל רַבִּי אֱלִיעֶזֶר. חָזְרוּ לִנְהוֹג כְּדִבְרֵי רַבָּן גַּמְלִיאֵל בִּשְׁתֵּי דְרָכִים: ‏

Jews that was farming (and is paid by percentage of harvest) a land of a non-Jew in Suria, Rabbi Eliezer consider it as "taxable" for Maasser and duty of Sheviit rules. Rabban Gamliel exempts it. Rabban Gamliel says two Chalot in Suria and Rabbi Eliezer says one Chala only. People practicized the llenient opinion for each (Chala and Maasrot and Sheviit). Then they make everything according to Rabban Gamliel.

See this Gemara Eruvin 7a:

כל היכא דמשכחת תרי תנאי ותרי אמוראי דפליגי אהדדי כעין מחלוקת ב''ש וב''ה לא ליעבד כי קוליה דמר וכי קוליה דמר ולא כחומריה דמר וכי חומריה דמר אלא או כי קוליה דמר וכחומריה עביד או כקוליה דמר וכחומריה עביד.‏

Whenever you come across two Tannas and two Amoras who differ from one another in the manner of the disputes between Beth Shammai and Beth Hillel, a man should not act either in accordance with the lenient ruling of the one Master and the lenient ruling of the other Master, nor in accordance with the restriction of the one and the restriction of the other, but either in accordance with the lenient and restrictive ruling of the other or in accordance with the lenient and restrictive ruling of the other.)

This is for a sake of completeness (consistency). So If we seek for every rule the lenient opinion, we risk to make contradictory things. Bartenura in the mishna of Chala said "whom make leniency of each is a Rasha"

  • You forgot to finish the Gemara in Eruvin :) – Shmuel Brin May 24 '16 at 22:31
  • @ShmuelBrin You think to the Ksil bachoshech holech? It is an other kind of shoping... BTW your question in Yebamot 103 is great. I am searching. ;) – kouty May 25 '16 at 1:13
  • No... the law only applies when the Kulot are Soser one another (like the Tuma of the Shidra VeGulgoles) – Shmuel Brin May 25 '16 at 2:04
  • which question? – Shmuel Brin May 25 '16 at 2:07
  • 1) This was my intention when I wrote consistency 2) question of a Yabam there has no legs. – kouty May 25 '16 at 3:50

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