This question is prompted by a specific case, but I'm asking a general question. This question is not, specifically, about the Aramean.
The specific case, for illustration:
I've seen two different translations for D'varim 26:5, and they are reflected in different haggadot. (A haggadah difference at my seder this year led to this question.)
JPS translates אֲרַמִּי אֹבֵד אָבִי as "A wandering Aramean was my father". This is the translation shown at Sefaria.org. On the other hand, my (print) Sapirstein Chumash with Rashi, and the Chabad site, translate it "An Aramean [sought to] destroy my forefather", presumably because Rashi interprets it thus (meaning Lavan). Answers to this question cite a variety of interpretations, and one suggests that the Rashi interpretation is more midrashic.
"An Aramean sought to destroy my father" is a pretty big deviation from "a wandering Aramean was my father". I'm used to Tanakh translations sticking a little closer to the words that are actually there -- not necessarily literal, of course, as there's no such thing as a completely literal translation, but this is the sort of thing where I'd expect a translation closer to p'shat accompanied by commentary (or a footnote if the edition isn't doing fuller commentary). This, in turn, makes me wonder what else might vary.
My biblical Hebrew is, eh, spotty. I rely on translations for fuller understanding. How can I tell when a translation is holding closer to the p'shat and when it's varying more? I'm interested in both p'shat and interpretation/midrashim; I just want to know when I'm looking at which. How should I do that? Are there any "markers" one can look for? Do certain translators tend to do more or less of this and I should choose a translation with that in mind? Or do they all do it some of the time and I should routinely check multiple translations?
This question is about translations in general. If you have interpretations of the example passage, I suggest you offer them on this question about that passage.