3

Based on this question.

Many (most?) Ashkenazim in America say Pesach, with a segol, when talking about the korban pesach, but Peisach, with a tzeirei, to refer to the holiday. As far as I know, the second version is not used in Tanach.

Based on Tehillim 119:130, I guess it would be more correct to say "Peisach Mitzrayim" and "Peisach dorot", but most people say Pesach even there because it's talking about the korban.

Since, the way people speak, Peisach with a tzeirei refers specifically to the holiday and not the korban, can you say "this meat is for Peisach"?

  • I'm uncertain about using the "grammar" tag, here. This is not grammar but dialect / pronunciation. Do we have a tag for that? Otherwise, you can create one. – DanF Apr 19 '16 at 13:45
  • 6
    Nice but we also say korbon paisach (were i live) and not korbon pesach – hazoriz Apr 19 '16 at 14:00
  • I don't think there is any meaningful reason for this, other than the fact that most English/Yeshivish speakers are not careful about Hebrew pronunciation especially when using Hebrew words in English speech. (E.g., they also say torah with an emphasis on the first syllable when it should be on the second.) – user432944 Oct 17 '19 at 20:07
  • @user but bottom line the words in common usage still have different meanings, so the daas comes across clearly – Heshy Oct 17 '19 at 20:57

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .