I'm relaying this question from my shul's chazzan to me, who is a Torah reader. I'm stumped...
וְאָכַלְתָּ֖ וְשָׂבָ֑עְתָּ וּבֵֽרַכְתָּ֙ אֶת־יְהוָ֣ה אֱלֹהֶ֔יךָ עַל־הָאָ֥רֶץ הַטֹּבָ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֥ר נָֽתַן־לָֽךְ
As you can see from the position of the trope notes, the 2 bolded words are pronounced on the final syllable - milra. My chazzan asks why is this so, when these two words are really accented on the 2nd syllable when spoken in conversational Hebrew.
E.g. you say, "a-CHAL-ta" and "Be-RACH-ta".
Another example is Deuteronomy 6:7:
וְשִׁנַּנְתָּ֣ם לְבָנֶ֔יךָ וְדִבַּרְתָּ֖ בָּ֑ם בְּשִׁבְתְּךָ֤ בְּבֵיתֶ֙ךָ֙ וּבְלֶכְתְּךָ֣ בַדֶּ֔רֶךְ וּֽבְשָׁכְבְּךָ֖ וּבְקוּמֶֽךָ
Is the conversational pronunciation incorrect, or is there a different ruling to the accent when there a vav hahipuch (vav that converts the verb tense?)
(The above is one of many examples, where we see this. So, your answer need not focus on just this example. BTW, in the 2nd example, the chazzan stated that since בָּ֑ם is a single syllable verb, the accent on the previous word should have a nasog achor, and move back 1 syllable, which it doesn't, here. )