A friend of a non-observant family shared a story which inspired this question.
Two cousins were playing together. The boy was about 7 years old. The girl was about 3 years old. Early on, the mother (mother-A) of the 3 year old girl had educated her on what is and is not appropriate touch. After the two cousins were playing, the girl informed mother-A that the boy had 'touched' her inappropriately. Mother-A did not take this lightly (being a victim of family molestation) and informed her sister - mother-B - of what had transpired.
Mother-B was certain that her son would not intentionally do this. It is too easy to touch a 'forbidden' area (which could be respectively appropriate generally, yet forbidden to some i.e. touching the thigh) by accident. She also understood that a three year old might get an 'idea' of what inappropriate touch is but still does not have discernment to know what is malicious or not.
Mother-B talked her sister out of making this an issue that could destroy the family. Mother-A dropped it. Unfortunately, there was still recoil. Mother-B warned her son to never be alone with the little girl again. And though the cousins today have a great relationship, mother-A (aunt) and the boy (nephew) do not.
If molestation runs in the family, does educating children start earlier than if not? Does the gender being educated affect how and when education proceeds? Like in our story if a parent is a victim of molestation, is it advised for the parent to first address it within him/herself for a better educational outcome and emotional development of the child?