What was so special about the night that Achashveirosh couldn't sleep that it was referred to in the Megila (6:1) as "that night", i.e.

בלילה ההוא נדדה שנת המלך

It could have said something more typical like

ויהי בלילה אחד

The language of "on that night" seems to be unusual. Was there really anything special about that night or the day that preceded it that we must know they are connected?

  • the Targum has much to say on the phrase but, though I can understand most of the words, I don't get his point. If you can find the Targum in English, that might be a good place to start. – rosends Apr 3 '16 at 12:55
  • I asked a friend this question and he said it has to do with the fact that this night was Passover. He wasn't sure about the source though - if anyone knows please feel free to answer – CodyBugstein Apr 11 '16 at 20:29

6:4 shows Haman acting on the advice of 5:14, going to advise the king to hang Mord'chay. Thus, it's relevant to the story to point out that this occurred the very night after 5:14.

(My own thoughts.)


I think the simplest answer is probably the best. It only makes sense if it happened that particular night. It couldn't have been "one night". It was that night, ie.,, the night after the conversation with his wife, which followed his embarrassing encounter with Mordechai, which occurred on his way home from Esther's feast. It was the night preceding the second feast. After all, following the parade, which occurred the next day, he was whisked away by the royal court to attend that second feast. It was a very busy (and decisive) couple of days for Haman.

I think the language can be analyzed, but any meaning derived from the choice of words have to assume as a given that it was then in the course of things. It is not, as you commented on an earlier answer, a random night. That is simply incorrect in a plain reading of the text.

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