I've always believed that "all prayers are accepted", at least if they're done correctly and with intention. But I was recently reading through Berachot 6a when I read the following:

אין תפלה של אדם נשמעת אלא בבית הכנסת שנאמר A man's prayer is only heard [by God] when offered in a Synagogue ...

Is a man's prayer really only heard by G-d when offered in a Synagogue?


Art Scroll Brachos 6a1 note 18 cites Lechem Mishna to Hilchos Tefillah 8:1 that this refers to a prayer definitely being accepted. If someone prays on his own, then he is judged to determine whether or not he merits his prayer being accepted. The Tzlach says that an individual who prays in a synagogue will have his prayer accepted more readily than an individual who prays elsewhere. Note that the quote from the gemara is in the singular and not the plural. The Mishna Berurah 90:28 cites the Pri Megadim to say that a minyan is always superior (and more readily accepted) even if the minyan is in a private house and the individual is in the synagogue.

  • But why does it say that it is ONLY accepted at a Synagogue? Shouldn't it say that it's better because so and so?
    – Gabriel12
    Mar 26 '16 at 5:09
  • @Gabe12 As I say in the first sentence it is only accepted definitely in a synagogue. It may or may not be accepted elsewhere (as the Lechem Mishna says). Mar 28 '16 at 0:27
  • @Gabe12 the Lechem Mishna was bothered by your very question which is why he interpreted the Gemara non-literally, as an exaggeration.
    – mevaqesh
    Mar 28 '16 at 15:49

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .