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Someone who isn't Jewish owns something which is chametz. He is storing it at a family members house. They understand it to belong to him and therefore won't eat this thing. Meanwhile he has forgotten about this and went through a gerus. Sometime later after having completed their gerus and having celebrated one pesach he returns to this family members house and realizes his chametz item is still there.

Who did this item belong to during the first pesach he celebrated when he had forgotten about it and may he partake of it now?

  • Any reason to suspect his property doesn't belong to him? If so, please edit it in. – Double AA Mar 21 '16 at 18:07
  • Assuming he followed the conventional practice of declaring it hefker (ownerless) after the bedikat chametz the night before Pesach (and assuming that that ritual does indeed confer upon it actual ownerlessness), it should retain that state afterward. Otherwise, it would have remained his and become forbidden from the eve of Passover onward. – Loewian Mar 21 '16 at 18:51
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    Please explain the difference between this case and the case of a simple Jew. What is the hypothetical eventuality that the item do not belong to the Ger if he don't make it hefker or give it to the family? – kouty Mar 21 '16 at 20:06
  • @Loewian if it becomes hefker would he be permitted to use it? – Dude Mar 21 '16 at 20:13

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