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Since we were in Persia because of the Babylon captivity, was the messiah concept obtained from Zoroastrianism.

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No, Judaism had a belief in moshiach before zoroastrianism was invented. While zoroastrianism is a very old religion it isn't older than Judaism. As for the Jewish belief in moshiach see Rambam:

Anyone who does not believe in [Mashiach], or whoever does not look forward to his coming, denies not only [the teachings of] the other prophets but [also those] of the Torah and of Moses our Teacher. For the Torah attested to him, as it is said: “G‑d, your G‑d, will return your captivity and have mercy on you. He will return and gather you [from all the nations whither G‑d, your G‑d, has scattered you]. If your banished shall be at the utmost end of the heavens [G‑d, your G‑d, will gather you from there]… and G‑d, your G‑d, will bring you [to the land that your fathers possessed, and you will possess it]…

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    Not overly compelling... – mevaqesh Jul 14 '16 at 4:49
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The time line discussed in Wikipedia seems to say that Zoroastrianism was invented some time around the destruction of the temple (or shortly thereafter). As a result, one can say that many of the concepts of Zoroastrianism were actually adapted from Judaism rather than the other way around. However, there is no real proof as to what actually happened.

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    This is not an answer. It simply declares that you don't know the answer and assume that no one else does also. – mevaqesh Jul 14 '16 at 4:50
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    @mevaqesh No. It states that since Zoroastrianism was invented after the destruction of the temple, it either copied from Judaism or came up with the idea independantly. We have no documentation on which as only their writings would say one way or the other. and that would not apply to us. – sabbahillel Jul 14 '16 at 10:31
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    First of all if you did even basic research you would know that the possible roots of Zoroastrianism are in the second millennium BCE. Thus rendering your argument quite shaky. However, the more fundamental problem with the answer is that the OP is implicitly asking whether the idea is of a later addition to Judaism. Even if you were correct that Zoroastrianism is much younger than Judaism, that does not tell us when the belief of the Messiah began; before or after Zoroastrianism, and whether it was borrowed from them. – mevaqesh Jul 14 '16 at 13:45
  • @mevaqesh The neviim speak of the mashiach and acharis hayamim so that the concept of mashiach (reinstatement of bais david) come from earlier while the Bnei Yisrael were still in Eretz yisrael and before the destruction of the first temple. The time line that I point to and other sources date Zoroastrianism as around or after the destruction of the first temple. Thus the Neviim speak of mashiach before that religion was invented. Also even if it was invented earlier, there had not been connection with Bnai Yisrael until after the Babylonians conquered Eretz Yisrael. – sabbahillel Jul 15 '16 at 1:08
  • Well that information seems crucial for the answer. As it stands now, `iqqar hasser min hasepher. Why don't you edit in where Jewish Scripture discusses these ideas, the dating of these texts, and the relative chronology with Zoroastrian history. – mevaqesh Jul 15 '16 at 1:33

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