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It was discussed in a previous question if when a woman who converts to Judaism while pregnant if the child is also Jewish or not. From there it seems that the child is yes Jewish however with some halachic difference.

I'm asking now if there is a possibility that this child wouldn't need pidyon haben (the father I'll add was also a convert at the same time the woman become one, when she was pregnant.)

One possible reason why he wouldn't need (I would say) is because of the dissenting opinions (Ramban) that when the child is born he would need to undergo another conversion.

And if the child does need pidyon haben, can the father (who wasn't Jewish at the time of conception, but is Jewish now) perform the pidyon haben himself or must the child do it for himself later on in life?

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    I assume the child is male and the mother hasn't given birth previously – Double AA Mar 1 '16 at 14:27
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Yes, the child would need to redeem himself when he grows up. (Mishna Bechorot 8:1, ShA YD 305:20)

  • This is even if the father wasn't Jewish b'shas conception? I suppose then a normal Jewish woman that gives birth to a child that has a non-Jewish father than it would also need pidyon? – Yehoshua Mar 1 '16 at 14:35
  • @Yehoshua If the father is non-Jewish and the mother is Jewish the child is obligated to redeem himself when he grows up unless his mother is a Leviyah (Bechorot 47, ShA YD 305:18) – Double AA Mar 1 '16 at 14:38
  • Please see the edit I made to the question in regards to if the father himself can do it now. – Yehoshua Mar 2 '16 at 9:47
  • @Yehoshua The biological father can't do it. He's not related. It's just like the case of the non-Jew who fathers a child with a Jew, as we discussed in the comments above. – Double AA Mar 2 '16 at 15:24
  • Perhaps this is a different question, could the father be appointed as a shliach now (or any other Jewish man) to be "podeh" the son on his behalf? – Yehoshua Mar 2 '16 at 15:35

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