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I know that there is a prohibition to eat meat and fish together. But, I'm not sure if this prohibition applies to these two actual items or to other items that may have touched one of these two.

For example, let's say someone served rice on someone's plate and on that plate was a piece of chicken. The rice was not mixed with the chicken, but it touched it on the plate, and may have absorbed some of the chicken taste. We are not sure if it did or not. The sushi chef tastes the rice, and it doesn't taste like there is any chicken taste. But, then, again, that's one person's opinion. We know that it was next to the chicken at some point.

Can the sushi chef (who may be Jewish) use that rice to make sushi (with fish) rolls, or would this be a prohibition of eating meat with fish?

  • The OU pakens that sakanah of fish can be butel. However, the Rama paskens that we do not rely on non Jews to taste of something is butel anymore. – Tzafnas Paneach Feb 22 '16 at 18:34
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    @tza A Jew could taste the rice. – Double AA Feb 22 '16 at 19:21
  • @DoubleAA the question states the sushi chef tastes it. Who ever heard of a Jewish sushi chef :) – Tzafnas Paneach Feb 22 '16 at 22:04
  • Who says that the issue is one of ta'am? This isn't an issur achilah we're dealing with, it's an issue of sakana, so it's likely that the only issue is when there is mamashus. In that case, what matters is whether there is a miut of meat in the rice and whether that can be battel, not whether the rice TASTES like the meat. – Isaac Kotlicky Feb 23 '16 at 20:51
  • @IsaacKotlicky implied in my question is that if something tastes meaty could there be meat in it? Based on what you stated, if one cooked the rice in chicken gravy and all the gravy was absorbed in the rice, so that we had no clue that this was done by looking at it, you would say that one could use this rice in the sushi? – DanF Feb 23 '16 at 20:55

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