If one leaks a little bit of urine after urinating, does this liquid (in the clothes) render one ritually impure? If not ritually impure, impure in another fashion?

  • related judaism.stackexchange.com/q/61298/759
    – Double AA
    Commented Feb 19, 2016 at 4:06
  • @mil I tried to make your question/title more readable. Please let me know if I missed your original intent.
    – Lee
    Commented May 23, 2016 at 13:37

1 Answer 1


First step what is the problem of the urine? Gemoro Berachoth 22B

ת''ר היה עומד בתפלה ומים שותתין על ברכיו פוסק עד שיכלו המים וחוזר ומתפלל להיכן חוזר

But it is during the micturition: and in 25A

"לא אסרה תורה אלא כנגד עמוד בלבד"

"The urine prohibits the Kriath Shema and Tefila during micturition only" But Miderabanan the urine puddle also prohibits. (All this when there is no fetid odor perceptible in 4 amoth)

ומי רגלים כל זמן שמטפיחין מיתיבי מי רגלים כל זמן שמטפיחין אסורין נבלעו או יבשו מותרים

If the urine is dried or absorbed enough, and do not wets the hand, it is no longer considered as present.

הא רשומן ניכר שרי

if it is dried but leaves a visible trace, it is permitted.

The odor is an other subject.

But if the urine is not dry and not absorbed quasi totaly, Assur. But we may annul the urine with water. Note that the Mishna Brura in Shulhan Aruch Orach Chayim Siman 82 Sayif Koton 4 says that it is permitted indifferently if absorbed in ground or in clothes (but without odor.)

In conclusion it is considered as ritually correct.

  • and what if it's covered with other clothes?
    – RG1
    Commented May 23, 2016 at 15:48
  • @MrsRGeller you ass if it is covered upper and lower? in this case May b a din of covered and be allowed but generally the soiled clothe is in direct contact with skin
    – kouty
    Commented May 23, 2016 at 16:43
  • but not in direct contact with the HAND
    – RG1
    Commented May 23, 2016 at 18:13

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .