1

It states in shulchan aruch yoreh deah 112 11 "bread of a jew that a non jew baked without a jew's stirring or adding fuel, is forbidden to sell to a non jew lest a Jew buy it from the non jewish baker (thinking it's pas palter and allowed)"

This is because the allowance for pas palter is under normal circumstances but if the jew is already producing his own dough then he is expected to cook it as well. Any dough owned by a jew that a nonjew cooks is forbidden as pas bal habayis.

Would a company owned by a jew (let's assume non religious) that employs non jewish workers who turn on the oven fall under this category and hence the bread they produce be assur?

  • "This is because the allowance for pas palter is under normal circumstances but if the jew is already producing his own dough then he is expected to cook it as well." Actually, it sounds from the text that it's because buyers may think it's pas Yisrael. – msh210 Feb 17 '16 at 6:32
4

Generally speaking, if the whole process is done only by non-Jewish workers, then this is exactly "bread of a Jew that a non-Jew baked", and it is forbidden.

There's however an answer by Rabbi Moshe Feinstein (YD 1:45) who says that if there's no other way, it should be allowed (such as a Jew's factory, where the Jew needs the non-Jewish workers and cannot do it himself or find Jewish workers).

  • R Feinstein never says "Shaat HaDechak". He says one can certainly rely on what he wrote and the opinions who are stringent are "wonderous" (ie difficult to understand). – Double AA Feb 17 '16 at 0:31
  • @DoubleAA Edited (and I think that last part is regarding the "מחללי שבת בפרהסיא"). – Cauthon Feb 17 '16 at 0:44

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .