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If we already know safek dioraisa l'chumrah, why do we need safek d'rabanan l'kulah?

closed as unclear what you're asking by Ypnypn, Shmuel Brin, Gershon Gold, DanF, Isaac Moses Jan 17 '16 at 2:55

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  • Obvious question to ask of you, here - The 2 ideas are not in conflict with each other. A safek means that there's a doubt about if you should do something one way or another - in most cases a "yes" / "no" decision. All these rules are stating is that if it's a Torah mitzvah, you follow the stricter opinion; if it's a Rabbinical mitzvah, follow the lenient one. Someone has to tell you that rule b/c people may assume in specific cases or as a general rule that Rabbinical mitzvot should follow the more stringent rule. – DanF Jan 15 '16 at 2:44
  • Hava amina lo sasur makes it into a dioraisa for this. Ka mashma lan we don't say this. – user6591 Jan 15 '16 at 2:45
  • @user6591 You may want to translate the above for benefit of other M.Y. readers. Your ref. to lo sasur seems correct. If you can translate and link the source for that, I think you have an answer. Though, admittedly, the question seems vague, as it is. – DanF Jan 15 '16 at 14:34
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The reason we need to have both rules is because one does not follow logically from the other. Given just safeik deoraita l'chumra we could potentially also say safeik derabanan l'chumra. Likewise vice-versa.

  • A good proof to this is we have discussions about "Divrei Soferim Lechumra/Lekula" and "Divrei Kabbala Lechumra/LeKula". – Double AA Jan 15 '16 at 15:24
  • @DoubleAA Where are those statements listed? Shabbat Shalom. – DanF Jan 15 '16 at 18:50

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