The Aramaic language appears only once in the Book of Jeremiah in the following verse.
Jeremiah 10:11 (MT)
ִּדְנָה֙ תֵּאמְר֣וּן לְה֔וֹם אֱלָ֣הַיָּ֔א דִּֽי־שְׁמַיָּ֥א וְאַרְקָ֖א לָ֣א עֲבַ֑דוּ יֵאבַ֧דוּ מֵֽאַרְעָ֛א וּמִן־תְּח֥וֹת שְׁמַיָּ֖א אֵֽלֶּה׃
For reference, the English translation is as follows--
Jeremiah 10:11 (MM)
11 Thus shall ye say unto them: 'The gods that have not made the heavens and the earth, these shall perish from the earth, and from under the heavens.'
What Jewish sources bear upon the literary and/or historical significance of this one-time use of Aramaic in the Book of Jeremiah? If the answer is because the quote was intended for the Gentiles, then why was not Jer 25:27 written in Aramaic, since that verse is also intended to be repeated to the Gentile nations?
In other words, is there any peculiar significance for Jewish readers (both then and now) when they come upon this one particular verse written in Aramaic in the Book of Jeremiah?