There are many times when the Gemara uses the word "שנאמר" when it quotes a verse.

Why does it sometimes use the word "כדכתיב" when quoting a verse, and sometimes it says "שנאמר"

  • 1
    Can you provide some examples? – Double AA Dec 7 '15 at 20:30
  • 1
    Similar: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/46063 – Fred Dec 7 '15 at 20:33
  • 2
    I would guess earlier texts/Tannaitic/from Israel would predominantly use the Hebrew, while later/Babylonian passages would use the Aramaic. – Loewian Dec 7 '15 at 23:07

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .