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There are many times when the Gemara uses the word "שנאמר" when it quotes a verse.

Why does it sometimes use the word "כדכתיב" when quoting a verse, and sometimes it says "שנאמר"

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    Can you provide some examples? – Double AA Dec 7 '15 at 20:30
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    Similar: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/46063 – Fred Dec 7 '15 at 20:33
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    I would guess earlier texts/Tannaitic/from Israel would predominantly use the Hebrew, while later/Babylonian passages would use the Aramaic. – Loewian Dec 7 '15 at 23:07

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