This question already has an answer here:
Why is it said that the Torah was "given at Sinai," in light of the fact that the Torah recounts events AFTER the Israelites departed from Sinai. Numbers Chapter 10 states the Israelites departed from the Desert of Sinai on or perhaps shortly after "the twentieth day of the second month of the second year [after leaving Egypt]." Therefore all of the Torah from the middle of Numbers Chapter 10 onward, at least as far as parts that recount events, was not "given at Sinai."
Is it that people are actually referring to the laws given at Sinai, as opposed to the entirety of the Torah, and imprecisely referring to this subset of the Torah as "The Torah?"
I see this question has been asked before, but the answers are very convoluted and reference all sorts of things with which I am not familiar.
I see this as a straightforward question that hopefully can be answered in a straightforward manner.