I wasn't able to locate an explanation that addresses, directly, the grammatical aspect, here. Of course, the phrasing is grammatically correct, just "unparalleled" in that the beginning of the verse mentions the object / place first and the end mentions the verb first.
In terms of why that occurs, here, specifically, I'm inferring a "principle" mentioned in
Messilat Yesharim 8:3 (excerpt; Sefaria English translation):
וכן תמצא כל מעשיהם של צדיקים תמיד במהירות. אברהם כתוב בו (בראשית יח): וימהר אברהם האהלה אל שרה ויאמר מהרי .
It is to be observed that all of the deeds of the righteous are performed with alacrity. In relation to Abraham it is written (Genesis 18:6), "And Abraham hastened to the tent, to Sarah, and he said, 'Hasten...'
This is an explanation of the previous verse. So we see that now, Avraham is in Sarah's tent. Perhaps, as a from of continuation, we already know that Avraham was hurrying and running. So, perhaps to state again, "He ran to the cattle (area)" wouldn't really be necessary, as you know that he's hurrying. So, the next verse tells you right away the next place that he is going by emphasizing the place first, so it says, "(Now) to the cattle he ran."
Note, also, that as @DoubleAA hinted, that if you were to state the verse according to your suggestion, i.e. - "Avrham ran to the cattle", you would need the vav hahipuch format for the 1st verb, which is, currently not there. I.e. the phrasing would be:
וירץ אברהם אל הבקר
You can see that even though the end meaning is the same, there is an important nuance in whether the subject or the place is mentioned first. Compare, in English:
"I went to Citifield" vs. "To Citifield, I went." You can see, in each, what's more "important".