1

If I am not mistaken, Rav P.S. Berg ( I know he is not a good source according to Jewish authorities) said in his book "The Essential Zohar" that if someone didn't get married during his lifetime, he won't have a share in Olam Haba.

In case that's true, is the same rule apply to gentiles ?

P.S: I , again, know that his work and university is not trusted among Jewish authority.

5
  • 1
    כל ישראל יש להם חלק לעולם הבא
    – Daniel
    Sep 21, 2015 at 19:49
  • @Daniel I don't speak Hebrew, I wish I do but I don't
    – mil
    Sep 21, 2015 at 19:50
  • It's a quote from the Mishnah. It means "All Israel has a portion of the World to Come." It's not necessarily meant to be taken as literally applicable all of the time, though.
    – Daniel
    Sep 21, 2015 at 19:54
  • @Daniel though Rabbi Yosef Mizrachi in a youtube video said that some Israelites/Jews lost their portions in the world like a Northern Israeli King I forgot his name, and a Torah scholar (maybe the father or grandfather of Bathsheba ) who kept saying bad things about King David, etc....
    – mil
    Sep 21, 2015 at 19:58
  • 1
    @DoubleAA, this is not a duplicate of that. The other asks whether it's acceptable to not marry. This asks whether someone who doesn't marry has a share in olam haba. Conceivably, it's not acceptable to not marry (as indeed the answer there indicates), but the question of whether the person who acts unacceptably has a share in olam haba remains open.
    – msh210
    Sep 21, 2015 at 21:18

0

Browse other questions tagged .