6

Have heard a few mizrahi recordings for qiddush and am noticing that some of them use borei f'ri hagefen. When i looked up Qiddush in my Egyptian siddur (Farhi Siddur) i noticed the Pei had no dagesh. It makes sense to me grammatically that it would be f'ri as the Borei ends with an aleph, and usually that removes the dagesh from the word that follows. Anyone have any sources? Or have access to ancient siddurim with nekkudoth to see if they put the dagesh in the pei or not?

  • 3
    It would make sense to have the Dagesh, because Borei is on a pause. It's not "borei-fri, hagafen". It's "borei, peri-hagafen". (ROY has a teshuva about this IINM.) – Double AA Sep 13 '15 at 1:50
  • 2
    teimonim say faree – MoriDowidhYa3aqov Sep 13 '15 at 2:04
  • 2
    @DoubleAA If bore is a noun, "the creator of", then it's got s'michus and there should be a fe. If it's a verb, "Who creates", then not. Afaict. – msh210 Sep 13 '15 at 2:24
  • 1
    @Aaron Taamim are just reflecting natural grammar and syntax. – Double AA Sep 13 '15 at 3:36
  • 1
    @DoubleAA Right, but if it's natural grammar and syntax, how can you have mizrahi communities (such as yemenites or Egyptians or Iraqis) going "there is a natural lack of pause here." And Ashkenazim going "there is a natural pause here." It doesn't make sense to me? – Aaron Sep 13 '15 at 3:51

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .