When a couple is having intimate relations, during foreplay, is the clear liquid that emits from the male organ considered Zera? Is a wife permitted to stimulate the male organ knowing that these pre ejaculate emissions are inevitable?
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closed as off-topic by ezra, Yishai, DonielF, mbloch, Gershon Gold Dec 13 '17 at 15:11
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "In the Jewish tradition certain questions, especially certain questions relating to sexuality, are discussed only in private. Such questions will be closed or deleted at the discretion of the community. See the FAQ." – ezra, Yishai, DonielF, mbloch, Gershon Gold
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Seems like two questions. Motion to close as Too Broad (if the community decides it's on topic). – Double AA♦ Aug 30 '15 at 23:42
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It's only one question.....pre ejaculate fluid, as far as zera li'vatala is concerned....is it semen, or is it not? – ddy Aug 31 '15 at 2:27
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If that's your question, why not just ask it, instead of the two different question currently in this post? – Double AA♦ Aug 31 '15 at 2:53
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he.wikisource.org/wiki/… – Double AA♦ Aug 31 '15 at 3:54
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2@DoubleAA these two questions are very closely linked. IMO, it's reasonable to look for an answer that addresses both in one compact discussion. – Isaac Moses♦ Aug 31 '15 at 13:18
