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I gave my daughter a second name after my father's, for which I came up with a female version. I saw that the name does exist, but I never bothered to see the origin for some reason. Now, after five years, somehow my curiosity caused me to look it up, and with great disappointment I find that it comes from a name of a so-called goddess.

Is there any source stating that a gentile is not allowed to give a name with the origin of an idol? (Even though the intention is not to be named after the idol.)

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    judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/8303/…
    – Wad Cheber
    Commented Aug 23, 2015 at 22:54
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    @sam First, this question is asking specifically with regard to a gentile being given a secular name, which I would assume wouldn't have the same prohibition as a Jew being given a secular name. Second, regarding R' Moshe's Teshuva, the way I recall it, he didn't say any caveat about a secular name being fine only after they become common. While he recommended having a Jewish name, he said there was no prohibition of a secular name. Interesting, related read: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/78/…
    – Salmononius2
    Commented Aug 24, 2015 at 17:26
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    More on the tangent: Mordechai and Esther were secular names for.... well, we don't know what Mordechai's hebrew name was. Pesachyah is one possibility. He is also identified as possibly being one of the other known prophets, so it could be Ezra, Chagai or Malakhi. Esther's Jewish name is given -- Hadassah. And, related to the question -- Mordechai and Esther were both named for local gods. Mardok was the god the Canaanites called Molekh, Ishtar was Asheirah. Both gods the Torah specifically warns us by name against worshiping.
    – Micha Berger
    Commented Aug 25, 2015 at 23:12
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    @NoachMiFrankfurt: Cultural influence. Isis reached the Canaanites as Asheirah, and from there to who eventually influence Ashur and their notion of wife-goddess, Ishtar. I was looking for someone who explains this, so I didn't have to, found en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Queen_of_heaven_(antiquity)
    – Micha Berger
    Commented Aug 25, 2017 at 11:29
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    BTW, it needn't be phonetically similar. The wife-goddess is associated with the planet Venus, named after the Greek version (maybe via Phoenicia to Greece?) of the same notion. Accretion is common in pagan religions. And gods are made to conform to each other. Which is what Achashveirosh was trying to do to The G-d when he put a statue of Zeus in the BHMQ. Not to get us to leave Hashem directly, but to get us to identify our G-d with their father- and head god.
    – Micha Berger
    Commented Aug 25, 2017 at 11:33

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Actually there is an accepted source stating that even a Jew may name his children after a pagan god if the name is accepted and used regularly for other people, since the intention is not to honor the god its use is permitted.

The source is R Meir hakohen (commonly known as the hagahot maimoniyot. rambam AZ chapter 5), and The Rama cites him as well in YD siman 147.

כתב רא"ם שאין אסור אלא שם שניתן לה לשום אלהות שמשמע אלהות, אבל שם הדיוטות כגון שמות בעלמא כשמות הגוים אע"פ שעשאהו אלוה כיון שבזה השם אין בו אלהות ואדנות וגם לא ניתן לו לשם כך מותר. וטעמא, דכתיב ושם אלהים אחרים לא תזכירו, בשם אלהות הקפיד הכתוב. וכן תנן אלו הן אידיהן של גוים קלנדא וכו' שאלו שמות הדיוטות הם, ובכמה מקומות בתלמוד הוזכרו ישו הנוצרי ותלמידיו, ואין אלוה גוים יותר ממנו

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