I'm going to be extra careful with this question, because I think that it would be easy to say something the wrong way and cause serious offense. If I do cause offense, I apologize in advance, and I assure you that I didn't intend it. My ignorance is the problem, not my intentions.
I have been led to believe that during the Second Temple period, Jews believed that G-d literally lived in the Temple, specifically in the Holy of Holies. Of course, He also lived everywhere else, but I was taught that the idea was that G-d was sort of "most present" in the Holy of Holies.
I'm a bit puzzled by the idea that G-d, who is usually described as being omnipresent, has a specific "home". The only way I can make sense of this is to assume that the presence of G-d basically "entered" the physical world at the Holy of Holies, and perhaps radiated outwards from there into the rest of the world.
I would have to assume that the Temple's destruction didn't affect G-d's presence in the world (His presence is too powerful to be altered by the actions of mere mortals), but I would also assume that the relationship between G-d and the Temple has changed as a result of the destruction, and as a result, the understanding of that relationship has also changed.
What else should I know about the relationship of G-d to the Temple, in terms of G-d living in the Holy of Holies? I'm specifically interested in how Jews in the Second Temple period understood this issue.
Note: I don't know how to read Hebrew, and most of the tags are written in Hebrew, so I would appreciate any help I can get with applying the correct tags on this question.
"that I may dwell among them"(as opposed to
"that I may dwell in it") can be interpreted likewise.