Is one allowed to name two of his children (of the same sex) by the same name, so that the entire Jewish name of one child is the same as that of the other?

I have never heard of any prohibition. On the other hand, it would make document authorship unwieldy (cf. Choshen Mishpat 49:7–9). And I've never heard of anyone doing so (though that may well not be for religious reasons. After all, with one exception, I've never heard of non-Jews doing it, either).

  • I'm not clear about your reference. Does he have a sibling named George Edward Foreman or did he name two of his children the same? – Octopus Aug 13 '15 at 22:29
  • @Octopus, he named all of his sons after himself – Noach MiFrankfurt Aug 13 '15 at 22:53

Pischei Teshuva Y.D. 116:6 quotes Adnei Paz as permitting it, but then quotes the Adnei Paz's corrigenda as indicating that it should not be done for reasons of Ein HaRah (if both are alive) or inheriting a bad Mazal (if one has passed away).

That latter view seems to be predominant in practice (see e.g.).

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Rashi Kesuvos 89b - Mar Keshisha Umar Yenika says that Rav Chisda had two sons and both had the same name.

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King David had two pairs of sons with the same name. See 1-Chronicles 3:6-8.

But Rashi there explains that the older sons died and he later named his new-born sons after them.

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