Why is Bamidbar 28:16 read as the first passuk of Maftir on the first day of Pesach if that passuk has nothing to do with Pesach, rather it refers to the Korban Pesach which was brought the day before on Erev Pesach? And don't tell me that it's because we read that entire Parsha regardless of its relevance to the specific day, because on all other days of Pesach we begin reading from Numbers 28:19 and skip Numbers 28:16-18 because those verses are irrelevant to the latter days of Pesach.

  • Also it's a question on the Nusach of the Mussaf Tefillah for that day... Mar 28, 2010 at 17:59

3 Answers 3


Perhaps by rights it's true that on the first day (or two days) we should start with 28:17, but then we'd be violating the rule that we don't begin an aliyah within three verses of a parashah break (open or closed). On the other hand, verse 19 is already three verses away from the parashah break, and so there's no problem starting there on Chol Hamoed.

  • 1
    "[T]he rule that we don't begin an aliyah within three verses of a parashah break": except at another such break.
    – msh210
    Aug 25, 2011 at 19:52

First of all, it's kri'as hatorah.

Secondly, when do we eat the korban pesach if not on Pesach.

  • First of all, it's really קריאת התורה. Secondly, usually Maftir reflects the Qorban Mussaf (also said in the Shemone Esrei of Mussaf on that day) of the day on which it is read, here we find a unique Maftir which refers to the Korban Mussaf brought on that day and a Korban brought the day before that was already eaten the night before? It's a bit of a chiddush. There must be more to it... Mar 28, 2010 at 17:57
  • 1
    Yisrael Medad, Welcome to mi.yodeya, and thanks very much for the quick answer! Please consider clicking "regsiter," above, to create your account. This will give you access to all of mi.yodeya's features and will allow you to take full credit for your contributions.
    – Isaac Moses
    Mar 28, 2010 at 17:58
  • Reb Chaim: is that really so surprising, though? Consider the actual keriah (not just the maftir) for the sixth day of Pesach, which doesn't even mention the Yom Tov itself - just the Korban Pesach, and (mostly) Pesach Sheni at that.
    – Alex
    Mar 29, 2010 at 4:57
  • @Reb Chaim, most holidays don't have special offerings aside from the Musaf. The exception to this is Yom Kippur, where the whole torah reading is devoted to the Avodah of the Kohen Gadol. So I think it's fair to say that we read about all of the special offerings devoted to the day in the Torah reading.
    – Chanoch
    Mar 29, 2010 at 13:56
  • @Chanoch Well, Pesach has the korban pesach and the omer + animals, shavuot has shtei halechem + animals, yom kippur has avoda befnim. So it's just rosh hashana and sukkot that don't. 3 to 2.
    – Double AA
    Mar 25, 2012 at 18:53

Besides Alex's answer, if the first pasuk were skipped, the date of the chag would only be known as the 15th. The first pasuk clarifies the month.

  • True, but chol hamoed Sukos and Sh'mini Atzeres we don't start at the start of Sukos.
    – msh210
    Aug 28, 2011 at 21:48
  • 1
    I later saw this answer in the Haggada from Rav Eliyashiv Sep 9, 2011 at 13:59
  • Shavuot and Shmini Atzeret lack mention of the month. Will anyone really be confused?
    – Double AA
    Apr 27, 2020 at 19:20

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .