A terminally ill man gives away all the $ from his bank account and then maxes out his credit card on gold bars which he gives to his friends. He correctly estimates that he will die before the purchases show up on the statement. He thus died without ever being chayiv to pay the cc company. The "stealing" from the credit card company only occurs after he is dead. Has he done a sin?

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    When you say "Has he done a sin?" do you mean "has he done something wrong?" or "is he culpable in court?"?
    – WAF
    Jun 22, 2015 at 1:25
  • the first one.. Jun 22, 2015 at 3:39
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    He would already be in a place with the jurisdiction to decide.
    – Epicentre
    Jun 22, 2015 at 4:08
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    @ClintEastwood Then isn't it obvious that the answer is yes? His estimate of his own mortality doesn't mitigate the financial crime at the moment he commits it.
    – WAF
    Jun 22, 2015 at 12:17
  • But wlhen did he become obligated to pay? Jun 22, 2015 at 13:07

1 Answer 1


No, though to answer your updated question via the comments, of course. Creating a debt with the intent of not paying it back is theft. It doesn't matter whether you're caught or not. Sure, it's a clever way of doing it, but it's still stealing.

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    Jamezrp, welcome to Mi Yodeya. I hope you'll like the place and decide to stay. Before you post an answer, please read over it several times and make sure it's as clear as possible to the maximum possible number of readers. (The first sentence could use some work.) Still, thanks very much for the thoughtful answer! Jun 22, 2015 at 11:50
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    Jamezrp, could you please insert sources for your answer? Jun 22, 2015 at 14:49

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