Is it mutar to be in the same house with a "mixed" couple [i.e. a Jewish man that is "married"/in a monogamous relationship of some sort with a gentile woman (since marriage between a Jew and a heathen is not valid anyway)], or is this a violation of yichud? As far as I know it is mutar for a Jewish man to be in yichud with a non-jewish couple, since she is afraid of her husband, but it is not allowed for a Jewish woman in the same situation, since the wife is not makpid on her husband.

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    Can you edit to indicate a source or reasoning for the last sentence? – Double AA Jun 16 '15 at 2:15
  • Can you also explain a bit more who you are referring to? Is this a Jewish woman in the house with a mixed couple? A Jewish man? Are you asking if the 3rd person violates Yichud? Is the 'married' Jew violating Yichud (granted, being married to a non-Jew is a more pressing issue, but you might be asking if there is an additional issue of Yichud too)? While it might sound like I'm being picky, I think each one of those cases are discussed separately in Halachah. – Salmononius2 Jun 16 '15 at 2:54
  • @warz3, your suggested edit has been rejected; I don't think that what you wrote is necessarily the intent of that last sentence -- I think Hugh was trying to say that there is no yichud with gentiles in general, and not just in this situation (that the husband is around). – Shokhet Jul 19 '15 at 20:24
  • From what I have learned around this site, it seems clear to me that the mixed couple is not considered "married" in any halachic sense -- however that would bear upon the situation. – SAH May 19 '16 at 17:08

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