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where can one find the talmud text or halachah text or something similar that identifies or divides Jews as either Ashkenazim or Sephardim or Teymanim? (Also, is it two only, the first two only, because the last one, Yemenites or Teymanim, is sometimes left out)?

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    Separation between Ashkenazim and Sefardim happened around 1000 years after the collection of the Talmud.
    – Daniel
    Jun 7, 2015 at 16:03
  • source, please?
    – ninamag
    Jun 7, 2015 at 16:05
  • jewfaq.org/m/ashkseph.htm
    – Daniel
    Jun 7, 2015 at 16:07
  • Thank you for this link. From this link, it states "It's not clear when the split began". I need more clarity (when the split might have began) from those know might know.
    – ninamag
    Jun 7, 2015 at 16:24
  • The question asks about when the terms Askenazim and Sefardim first appeared. That is well after the talmud Bavli closed.
    – sabbahillel
    Jun 8, 2015 at 15:00

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There was the Yeshiva in France, of the Tosafists, and there was a chain developing independently in Spain. These two schools had some differences in approach and in Minhag. After the Spanish expulsion, when many Spanish Jews moved East and carried the title Sfardy along with them, the divide became more pronounced.

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  • source, please?
    – ninamag
    Jun 8, 2015 at 4:41
  • It is hard to point to any one place as my source. It is all over the place. But you can start with en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sephardic_law_and_customs or read about the Rif
    – HaLeiVi
    Jun 8, 2015 at 5:10
  • This seems highly simplistic and completely ignores issues of their origins pre-Europe.
    – Double AA ♦
    Jun 8, 2015 at 13:29
  • @doubleaa pre-Europe is pre-Ashkenaz and Sfard. What do you mean by simplistic? It is actually that simple. Different Poskim and therefore different Minhagim. See the introduction of the Darkei Moshe.
    – HaLeiVi
    Jun 8, 2015 at 14:44
  • "pre-Europe is pre-Ashkenaz and Sfard" It before they got to those places, but it's not like the differences in tradition started then. The Rif was coming out of the Babylonian Gaonate whereas Rabbeinu Gershom may have been coming from Israeli Judaism or from a different Babylonian Yeshiva. Something like that at least. This answer is simplistic for not tracing the origins of their traditions with any detail other than to note they were sometimes different.
    – Double AA ♦
    Jun 8, 2015 at 14:54

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