It seems that, at least for Ashkenazim, the proponderance of poskim prefer "al kol mah sheBARA" over "sheBARASA" (or sheBARATA) and yet sheBARASA has become more common. Can anyone explain how this came about? On the sheBARA side you have the gemara in Berachos, the Rosh, The GRA, Chayei Adam, Kitzur Shulchan Aruch, Mishna Berura (accepts both but seems to prefer sheBARA) and probably Aruch haShulchan. On the sheBARASA side I find only the Magen Avraham and the gemara in Eiruvin which the GRA says is a mistake.

  • I actually (with consultation with my Rebbe) changed from barasa to bara after learning the sugya. I'll see if I can find the sources we went through, although at the end both are certainly accepted. May 31 '15 at 17:53
  • 1
    @Y e z Did you find the sources?
    – DonielF
    Sep 18 '19 at 21:45
  • The general answer to these types of questions is: people go after the siddurim. It's very likely there were siddurim printed using the magen Avraham's nusach, and they kept that nusach even while the achronim disagreed. (I've heard from rebbeim a few such examples.) The few contemporary siddurim I looked at also say "shebarasa".
    – Binyomin
    Jun 18 '20 at 5:59

The Mishna Berurah says the girsa of Shebarasa is נהרא נהרא ופשטיה

{ג} בורא נפשות רבות - נוסח הברכה בא"י אמ"ה בורא נפשות רבות וחסרונם על כל מה שברא להחיות בהם נפש כל חי ברוך חי העולמים. והחי"ת נקוד בצירי שהוא דבוק וי"א שבראת ונהרא נהרא ופשטיה:

  • I believe I addressed that in my question. That MB gives sheBARA as the text of the beracha and offers it as his first option indicates his preferance. May 31 '15 at 18:44
  • Yes. But he says that although the girsa of Shebarasa didn't have a strong basis it's not detrimental May 31 '15 at 18:46
  • I don't see that you are adding anything more to my original statement that MB accepts both texts but seems to prefer sheBARA (since he gives it as the first option.) May 31 '15 at 19:23
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    I don't believe this answers the question.
    – Daniel
    Sep 18 '19 at 21:33

Apparently for Sefer Bahir, which transmits traditions from the land of Israel and Ashkenaz, it is שֶּׁבָּרָא and not שֶּׁבָּרָאתָ, see Bahir §183 (Margaliot), §125 (Scholem): מַאי טַעְמָא אֲמְרִינָן עַל כָּל מַה שֶּׁבָּרָא חַי הָעוֹלָמִים וְלֹא אֲמְרִינָן מַה שֶּׁבָּרָאתָ אֶלָּא אָנוּ מְבָרְכִין לְהַקָּדוֹשׁ בָּרוּךְ הוּא הַמַּשְׁפִּיע חָכְמָתוֹ בוֹ לְחֵי הָעוֹלָמִים זֶה וְהוּא נוֹתֵן הַכֹּל וּמַאי טַעְמָא אֲשֶׁר קִדְּשָׁנוּ בְּמִצְוֹתָיו וְצִוָּנוּ וְלֹא אֲמְרִינָן קִדַּשְׁתָּנוּ וְצִוִּיתָנוּ מְלַמֵּד שֶׁחֵי הָעוֹלָמִים זֶה כָּלוּלִים בּוֹ כָּל הַמִּצְוֹת כֻּלָּם וּבְרַחֲמָיו עָלֵינוּ נוֹתְנָם לָנוּ כְּדֵי לְקַדְּשֵׁנוּ בֶּהָם וְאוּלַי נִזְכֶּה מַאי טַעְמָא כִּי בְּשָׁעָה שֶׁאָנוֹ נִזְכֶּה בָּעוֹלָם הַזֶּה נִזְכֶּה לָעוֹלָם הַבָּא

  • AFAIK, the Bahir is understood to be a composite of Babylonian and European sources, and anyway the Bahir is not transmitting an EY tradition here. The EY version has shem and malchut for this.
    – magicker72
    Sep 18 '19 at 20:51
  • 2
    I don't believe this answers the question.
    – Daniel
    Sep 18 '19 at 21:33

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