I heard that a person can perform kidushin with the food of someone else's banquet, when he's been invited as a guest.

Is this true? If so, why? (Do the owners of the banquet relinquish ownership over the food?) And where is the source for this?

  • You can do Kidushin with any object of yours that's a certain value. You 'acquire' your portion of the meal as a guest. The food is now yours. Why wouldn't you be able to do Kidushin with it? Apr 16, 2015 at 0:23
  • 1
    @Salmononius2 basically that is the question. Do the owners of the banquet relinquish ownership over the food?
    – helloworld
    Apr 16, 2015 at 0:26
  • 1
    I haven't seen the sources in a while, but I don't recall that it's that simple -- if I remember correctly, there was some disagreement on the topic.
    – MTL
    Apr 16, 2015 at 0:30

1 Answer 1


Rama, Even Haezer 28:17, in my own loose translation:

A guest sitting in someone's home who takes his portion of food and weds with it — she is wed.

However, Bes Sh'muel there cites Bach and Taz as saying that marriage is effected only misafek (possibly).


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