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There are two passages in the Torah which detail the laws of a korban chatas (sin offering), one in Parshas Vayikra and the other in Parshas Tzav. These two passages are very close to each other; why did the Torah discuss it twice, and in two different places?

The same is true regarding the Asham (guilt-offering) and Shalmei Nedava (involuntary peace-offerings), that those sacrifices are discussed in both Parshas Vayikra and Tzav, albiet in slightly different ways. Why?

(I'm not asking about what halachos are learned out from this repetition or from the second paragraph, but why the Torah needed two paragraphs a few chapters away from each other to teach us these laws)

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    Offhand, it seem like parshat Vayikra focuses mainly on the individual's obligation / viewpoint (as discussed in another M.Y. question last week, Aharon's name is vaguely mentioned), whereas Tzav is almost entirely focused on the Cohen's (the 1st verse very explicitly mentions Aharon's name, BTW) obligation. Perhaps, the Torah wanted to separate these 2 messages as the view and thinking from the giver and the receiver are quite different. – DanF Mar 27 '15 at 16:25
  • @DanF the Ramban points that out at the beginning of the parsha. It's hard to see how that explains the differences (like, why the details of a Todah are in Tzav) but it makes sense. The Rashbam (6:1) just says that the Torah repeated the laws, without explanation – הנער הזה Mar 29 '15 at 3:28
  • שנה עליו הכתוב לעכב בקדשים – Double AA Mar 22 '18 at 19:09
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There is a widespread concept in kodshim that any law must be repeated for to to be meakev (affect the kashrus of the korbon). for example (menachos 19b):

אמר רב כל מקום שהחזיר לך הכתוב בתורה מנחה אינו אלא לעכב

I believe this covers many instances, although you are right that there are individual inferences made from certain repetitions.

  • (I'm not asking about what halachos are learned out from this repetition or from the second paragraph, but why the Torah needed two paragraphs a few chapters away from each other to teach us these laws) – Double AA Mar 26 '18 at 12:11
  • This answer seems to me to beg the question. It's not like this widespread concept exists independently of the Author of the Torah, such that it forced Him to teach which laws are me'akev using it. Instead of answering "Why all the repetition?", this answer simply extends it to "Why all the repetition, and why use this pattern to teach this concept?" – Isaac Moses Mar 26 '18 at 18:57
  • so now the question is transferred to the concept i cited, or my answer is insufficient altogether? – heshy Mar 28 '18 at 1:50
  • @heshy I don't think this really answers the "why" question. – Isaac Moses Mar 28 '18 at 18:58
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Why are so many things mentioned twice in the Torah, such as, but not limited to the examples you gave?

An answer can be gleaned from the very first repetition of a subject in the Torah (Gen 41:32) and the answer given was כִּי-נָכוֹן הַדָּבָר מֵעִם הָאֱלֹהִים

I've thus answered, because you specifically noted, that you are "not asking about what halachos are learned out from this repetition ...."

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