After divorce, does a woman reassume her maiden name or does she still use her married name?

closed as off-topic by Y     e     z, DanF, Double AA Mar 17 '15 at 2:52

  • This question does not appear to be about Judaism within the scope defined in the help center.
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.


There is no halachic significance to the concept of the Shem Mishpachti/Last Name used by the broader world. There are legal ramifications to divorce vis a vis returning to her parent's household/shevet, but those are mostly relevant for things like terumah and maaser.

Others may correct me on this one, but the only possible argument I can see regarding last names is that retaining her married name might falsely give others the impression that she is still married.

  • Perhaps an impending (or very recent) name change could complicate what to write in the Get? – Double AA Mar 17 '15 at 2:54
  • @DoubleAA A get generally wouldn't be using last names, just names that the person is directly addressed as. So unless she was explicitly called by her last name (and not Mrs. X), then there would be no need to include it in the get. – Isaac Kotlicky Mar 17 '15 at 2:59

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .