Before Gideon goes out to war: יח וְתָקַעְתִּי בַּשּׁוֹפָר אָנֹכִי וְכָל אֲשֶׁר אִתִּי וּתְקַעְתֶּם בַּשּׁוֹפָרוֹת גַּם אַתֶּם סְבִיבוֹת כָּל הַמַּחֲנֶה וַאֲמַרְתֶּם לַיהֹוָה וּלְגִדְעוֹן:

He says that they should say for Hashem and for Gideon.

In passuk 20 כ וַיִּתְקְעוּ שְׁלֹשֶׁת הָרָאשִׁים בַּשּׁוֹפָרוֹת וַיִּשְׁבְּרוּ הַכַּדִּים וַיַּחֲזִיקוּ בְיַד שְׂמֹאולָם בַּלַּפִּדִים וּבְיַד יְמִינָם הַשּׁוֹפָרוֹת לִתְקוֹעַ וַיִּקְרְאוּ חֶרֶב לַיהֹוָה וּלְגִדְעוֹן:

When they actually said somthing they said the sword for HaShem and for Gideon,why did they add the word sword when he instructed them to say only for HaShem and Gideon?

1 Answer 1


From Targum, and Rashi in his name, and Radak and Malbim, it seems implicit in his words לה׳ ולגדעון that he was referring to his sword, meaning victory, with their response the proof to this, as Radak points out.

See also pasuk 14 there where the expression חרב גדעון was used as phrase concerning the prophetic dream about his victory.

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