It is generally frowned upon to feed the body before praying to God in the morning. Does this extend to milk (since coffee with milk is fine). Is milk by itself any different?
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Related (your own question) judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/52629/…– ScimonsterFeb 2, 2015 at 16:27
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2Coffee with milk is itself subject to disagreement, especially if the milk is not easily considered batel to the coffee.– LN6595Feb 2, 2015 at 17:51
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1 Answer
It seems that only foods that were considered 'luxurious' in their time were forbidden.
Writing about adding milk and sugar and coffee, Dose of Halacha writes:
R’ Shlomo Zalman Auerbach (Halichos Shlomo p8) and R’ Ovadia Yosef (Yabia Omer 4:11) however, allow milk and sugar, as these are no longer considered such luxuries (See Aruch Hashulchan 89:23)
These sources don't make an exception for coffee and tea, actually, though anything that will help one.
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2I believe that article means to say that you can add milk or sugar to coffee. Not that they can me consumed by themeselves. Feb 2, 2015 at 18:27
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2correct - I pointed that out, though the sources aren't mechalek between coffee and tea to anything else, though explain why the Shulchan Aruch's issur no longer applies! It is clear from those sources that the same applies to any regular beverage, as I intimated in my answer.– ZviFeb 2, 2015 at 18:28