Since ancient Israel was a patriarchal society, does that mean that the intermediary humans that wrote the Tanach were inclined to apply masculine aspects to God because men were dominant in those times?
No. It is an artifact of language rather than a matter of "patriarchal dominance". Many languages have no "gender neutral" pronoun that can be applied to a human being or an animal with a sexual identity. That is, "it" refers to something inanimate and cannot be used for a being. Thus it does not have a term that can refer to Hashem. English does not have a gender neutral pronoun like "heesh".
Spanish and Hebrew (for example) must refer all object with a masculine or feminine pronoun (as for example at Gender, an Inherent Characteristic of Spanish Nouns) even for objects. Indeterminate or mixed nouns also use the masculine form.
In any case, the listed prophets (male and female) are only those whose prophesies were meant for future generations. We see from the incident of Chizkiyahu consulting Chuldah that a prophet could be male or female and the fact was not considered unusual. the only question that arose was why he did not consult Yirmiyahu who was the leading prophet of that generation. We also see from the fact that Devorah was the Judge of the nation and from Miriam sister of Moshe that a female prophet was accepted as normal.
According to Jewish tradition, there was not a "group of intermediary humans who wrote the Tanach."
The Rambam in his 13 fundamentals of Jewish faith, in the introduction to the 10th chapter of Sanhedrin, in the 8th principle, writes the following:
כלומר שהגיע אליו כולה מאת ה' הגעה שקורין אותה על דרך השאלה דבור
Which means to say that the entire Torah reached Moshe from G-d on a level which we call "speech"
The entire Torah was dictated, at the pinnacle of clarity, by G-d to Moshe. The Jewish explanation of why G-d is referred to in masculine terms, then, will not have anything to do with a male-dominated society.